Gurgaon Gramin Bank Officer Exam - 25/10/2009

Gurgaon Gramin Bank Officer Exam - 25/10/2009

Question    
Answer

Bank PO Reasoning Ability Test 05

Directions—(Q.1-7) In each of the following questions a series is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question-mark (?) ?

1. CG, GH, LJ, RM, ?
(A) ZR
(B) YR
(C) ZQ
(D) YQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. FRP, HPQ. JNS, LLV, ?
(A) PKZ
(B) NJZ
(C) OJZ
(D) MKZ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. Z15A, W13C, ?, Q9G, N7I.
(A) T12F
(B) R11F
(C) T11E
(D) R13D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. MN, NM, MNO, ONM, MNOP, ?
(A) NPOM
(B) POMN
(C) MOPN
(D) PONM
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. CVD, CTE, DQE, DMF, EHF, ?
(A) ECG
(B) FCG
(C) EBG
(D) FBG
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. JKL, LKJ, JKLM, MLKJ, JKLMN, ?
(A) LMJKN
(B) NLMKJ
(C) NMUK
(D) NMLKJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. 7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, ?
(A) 17E4
(B) 18F5
(C) 17E3
(D) 18D4
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions— (Q.8-10) In each of the following questions one number-series is given in which one term is wrong. Find out the wrong term.

8. 5, 7, 11, 20, 35, 67.
(A) 11
(B) 20
(C) 35
(D) 67
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. 4, 11, 21, 34, 49, 69,91.
(A) 34
(B) 69
(C) 49
(D) 21
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. 5, 12, 19, 33, 47, 75, 104.
(A) 33
(B) 47
(C) 75
(D) 104
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q.11-15) In each of the following questions a number-sereis is given. Which one of the alternatives will replace the question mark (?) ?

11. 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?
(A) 169
(B) 159
(C) 119
(D) 139
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. 0, 7, 26, 65, 124, 215, ?
(A) 305
(B) 295
(C) 342
(D) 323
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. 4, 7, 10, 10, 16, 13, ?
(A) 19
(B) 23
(C) 21
(D) 22
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ?
(A) 52
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 48
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. 2, 11, 47, 191, 767, ?
(A) 2981
(B) 3068
(C) 3081
(D) 3058
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q.16-20) In each of the following questions a letter-series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative.

16. mno—p—no—p—n—opm.
(A) opmno
(B) pmomn
(C) pmmpn
(D) nmopo
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. ba—abab—b—ba—aba.
(A) abab
(B) aabb
(C) baab
(D) bbaa
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

18. —acca—ccca—acccc—aaa.
(A) caac
(B) ccaa
(C) acca
(D) caaa
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. mnm—mn—m—mn.
(A) nmnn
(B) nmnm
(C) mmmn
(D) nmnm
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. ac—cab—baca—aba—acac.
(A) acbc
(B) abca
(C) bacb
(D) acbb
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

21. If the position of Raja is 15th from one end and 13th from the other end in his class, what is the total number of students in his class? .
(A) 28
(B) 24
(C) 27
(D) 29
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. The position of Satyam is 13th from the last. If there are 21 students in all in his class, what is his position from the beginning?
(A) 8th
(B) 9th
(C) 7th
(D)) 10th
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

23. In the class of 40 students, if Sangita is at 30th place from one end, what is his position from the other end?
(A) 9th
(B) 12th
(C) 10th
(D) 11th
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. In a row of girls, Neelam is 15th from the left and Vinita is 23rd from the right. If they interchange their positions, then Neelam becomes 18 th from the left. Then at what position will Vinita be from the right?
(A) 25th
(B) 24th
(C) 26th
(D) 20th
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. In a row of ladies Manokamana is 20th from the right and Kamala is 10th from the left. When they interchange their positions Manokamana becomes 25th from the right. What is the total number of ladies in the row ?
(A) 35
(B) 34
(C) 44
(D) 24
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Bank PO Reasoning Ability Test 04

Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obtains between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. Find out this term.

1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to ... ?

(A) ADFH

(B) CFHJ

(C) CDEF

(D) CEGI

Ans : (B)

2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to ... ?

(A) FGKJ

(B) HILM

(C) HIKJ

(D) HIML

Ans : (B)

3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to ... ?

(A) CEXV

(B) CXFU

(C) EVFU

(D) EWCX

Ans : (B)

4. 'CIRCLE' is related to 'RICELC' in the same way as 'SQUARE' is related to—

(A) UQSERA

(B) QUSERA

(C) UQSAER

(D) QSUERA

Ans : (A)

5. 'JKLM' is related to 'XYZA' in the same way as 'NOPQ' is related to—

(A) RSTU

(B) YZAB

(C) DEFG

(D) BCDE

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative responses. Select the correct response.

6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney?

(A) Nose

(B) Blood

(C) Urine

(D) Lung

Ans : (D)

7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother?

(A) Child

(B) Boy

(C) Adult

(D) Nephew

Ans : (D)

8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ?

(A) Nylon

(B) Rayon

(C) Silk

(D) Terylene

Ans : (C)

9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure?

(A) Direct

(B) Order

(C) Initiate

(D) Fascinate

Ans : (D)

10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone?

(A) Accident

(B) Rain

(C) Earthquake

(D) Damage

Ans : (C)

11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Blacksmith

(C) Teacher

(D) Lawyer

Ans : (B)

12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ?

(A) Obstruction

(B) Drain

(C) Pipe

(D) Tap

Ans : (A)

13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue?

(A) Sky

(B) Dark

(C) Green

(D) Bright

Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ?

(A) Pleasant

(B) Feel

(C) Anxiety

(D) Satisfy

Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ?

(A) Light

(B) Metre

(C) Hour

(D) Watt

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two questions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill up the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alternative.

16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ?

(A) Disguise, Modest

(B) Capacity, Woman

(C) Man, Feminine

(D) Brave, Mrs.

Ans : (C)

17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ?

(A) Blue, Swim

(B) Bird, Water

(C) Open, Hook

(D) Tree, Colour

Ans : (B)

18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ?

(A) Brother, Brought-up

(B) Father, Aunt

(C) Cousin, Beautiful

(D) Aunt, Father

Ans : (D)

19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ?

(A) Columbo, India

(B) Kathmandu, Capital

(C) India, Paris

(D) Island, Harbour

Ans : (D)

20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ?

(A) White, Hunt

(B) Elephant, Horn

(C) Huge, Rare

(D) Costly, Scarce

Ans : (B)

Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of question marks.

21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ?

(A) Furniture, Tea

(B) Student, Horse

(C) Wood, Hot

(D) Chair, Plate

Ans : (D)

22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ?

(A) Sweet, Sour

(B) Energy, Machine

(C) Sugarcane, Milk

(D) White, Sweet

Ans : (C)

23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ?

(A) Moon, Rainbow

(B) Light, Cloud

(C) Sky, Wet

(D) Day, Night

Ans : (B)

24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ?

(A) Skull, Tongue

(B) Hat, Lips

(C) Hair, Voice

(D) Turban, Saliva

Ans : (A)

25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ?

(A) Hand, Know

(B) Experience, Feeling

(C) Skin, Hear

(D) Hair, Dirt

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each group of individuals which are common to each member of that group.

Column I Column II

FHIJ TW

IJK PT

IJLM SUW

GHIKM RV

GHI QRV

FGI PR

HIJ QTW

IJL QSUW

GIJ PQS

26. Which individual has all the above characteristics?

(A) J

(B) I

(C) H

(D) M

Ans : (B)

27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M?

(A) P, Q, T

(B) P, Q, R, S

(C) Q, R, S, T

(D) U, V, T

Ans : (A)

28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M?

(A) S

(B) B

(C) Q

(D) R

Ans : (C)

29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K?

(A) P, Q

(B) Q, W

(C) Q, R

(D) R, W

Ans : (B)

30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both?

(A) Q

(B) U

(C) S

(D) V

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are given with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer.

31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ?

(A) Delhi

(B) Kanpur

(C) Chennai

(D) Sholapur

Ans : (C)

32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?

(A) Blush

(B) Raven

(C) Ash

(D) Rust

Ans : (C)

33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ?

(A) Knife

(B) Spoon

(C) Fork

(D) Bowl

Ans : (D)

34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release?

(A) Ignore

(B) Pardon

(C) Liberate

(D) Quit

Ans : (C)

35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose?

(A) Bed

(B) Violet

(C) Plant

(D) Red

Ans : (C)

Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to 40.

36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ?

(A) Draft

(B) Cow

(C) Earth

(D) Dry

Ans : (D)

37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother?

(A) Baby

(B) Father-in-law

(C) Son

(D) Son-in-law

Ans : (C)

38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green?

(A) Tree

(B) Purple

(C) Grass

(D) Leaf

Ans : (B)

39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys?

(A) Heart

(B) Intestines

(C) Testis

(D) Neck

Ans : (A)

40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten?

(A) Window

(B) Door

(C) Block

(D) Iron

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are given. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternative is your answer.

41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck

(A) Speed

(B) Rooms

(C) Wheels

(D) Transport

Ans : (D)

42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer

(A) Meat eater

(B) Jungles

(C) Mammals

(D) Cruel

Ans : (C)

43. Sword, Gun, Pistol

(A) Arms

(B) Constable

(C) Bullet

(D) War

Ans : (A)

44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred

(A) Destruction

(B) Envy

(C) Human Characteristics

(D) Quality

Ans : (C)

45. Novel, Epic, Drama

(A) Subject

(B) Literature

(C) Poetry

(D) Knowledge

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are given. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.

46. Wheat, Barley, Rice

(A) Food

(B) Gram

(C) Cereal

(D) Agriculture

Ans : (C)

47. Coal, Iron, Mica

(A) Rock

(B) Minerals

(C) Gold

(D) Earth

Ans : (B)

48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability

(A) Quality

(B) Dependability

(C) Charter

(D) Nicety

Ans : (A)

49. Cap, Coat, Trousers

(A) Smart

(B) Shirt

(C) Dress

(D) Tailor

Ans : (C)

50. Stool, Table, Chair

(A) Bench

(B) Furniture

(C) Carpet

(D) Office

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two words and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question.

51. Resignation : Office ::

(A) Competition : Game

(B) Illness : Hospital

(C) Abdication : Throne

(D) Moisture : Rain

(E) Appointment : Interview

Ans : (C)

52. Bunch : Key ::

(A) Hound : Pack

(B) Team : Competition

(C) Beehive : Bee

(D) Examination : Subject

(E) Bouquet : Flower

Ans : (E)

53. Profit : Loss ::

(A) Success : Failure

(B) Rupee : Paisa

(C) Whole : Part

(D) Multiplication : Addition

(E) Adult : Child

Ans : (A)

54. Sapling : Tree ::

(A) Horse : Mare

(B) Student: Teacher

(C) Bud : Flower

(D) Tree : Furniture

(E) River : Brook

Ans : (C)

55. Supervisor : Worker ::

(A) Junior : Senior

(B) Superior : Inferior

(C) Elder : Younger

(D) Debtor : Creditor

(E) Officer : Clerk

Ans : (E)

56. Malaria : Mosquito ::

(A) Poison : Death

(B) Rat : Plague

(C) Epidemic : Bacteria

(D) Cholera : Water

(E) Medicine : Disease

Ans : (D)

57. Paisa : Rupee ::

(A) Kilogram : Quintal

(B) Metre : Centimetre

(C) Coin : Money

(D) Weight : Ton

(E) Rupee : Wealth

Ans : (A)

58. Poet : Verse ::

(A) Prose : Novelist

(B) Author : Book

(C) Novel : Prose

(D) Publication : Editor

(E) Summary : Paraphrase

Ans : (B)

59. Water : Thirst ::

(A) Food : Hunger

(B) Sun : Energy

(C) Appetite : Meal

(D) Ice-cream : Cold

(E) Poison : Death

Ans : (A)

60. Pulp : Paper ::

(A) Wood : Table

(B) Cloth : Shirt

(C) Yarn : Fabric

(D) Iron : Steel

(E) Wood : Sawdust

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two words and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning.

61. Trees and Forest

(A) Ocean (B) Page

(C) Books (D) Study

(E) Library (F) Ship

(G) Boys (H) Classes

Ans : (C, E)

62. Constable and Police

(A) Clerk (B) Hospital

(C) Medicine (D) Mother

(E) Girl (F) Doctor

(G) File (H) House

Ans : (B, F)

63. Brother-in-law and Sister

(A) I (B) Youth

(C) Female-companion (D) Wife

(E) My (F) Beautiful Woman

(G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law

Ans : (B, G)

64. Cold and Hot

(A) January (B) Monday

(C) Year (D) June

(E) March (F) Thursday

(G) Month (H) August

Ans : (A, D)

65. High and Low

(A) Far (B) Rent

(C) Next (D) Near

(E) Distance (F) Fair

(G) Last (H) Clean

Ans : (A, D)

66. Unsuccess and Laziness

(A) Study (B) Success

(C) Day (D) School

(E) Labour (F) Lazy

(G) Game (H) Honesty

Ans : (E, B)

67. Car and Garage

(A) Horse (B) Grass

(C) Bird (D) Water

(E) Man (F) Stable

(G) Animal (H) Hive

Ans : (A, F)

68. Hand and Fingers

(A) Foot (B) Eyes

(C) Hat (D) Teeth

(E) Head (F) Stomach

(G) Nose (H) Hair

Ans : (E, H)

69. Oxygen and Man

(A) Petrol (B) Stool

(C) Carpenter (D) Sky

(E) Driver (F) Wood

(G) Water (H) Fish

Ans : (G, H)

70. Neat and Clean

(A) Dirty (B) Tidy

(C) Route (D) White

(E) Wise (F) Ravi

(G) Foul (H) Beauty

Ans : (A, G)

Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of three words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below each question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups of that pair.

Column I

(A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato

(B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit

(C) Mother, Sister, Female

(D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker

(E) Stool, Furniture, Table

Column II

(P) Apple, Banana, Fruit

(Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals

(R) Doctor, Painter, Father

(S) Cow, Mammal, Animal

(I) Soldier, Army, Civilian

71. (A) BP

(B) AQ

(C) CR

(D) EP

Ans : (D)

72. (A) BR

(B) AT

(C) CS

(D) DP

Ans : (C)

73. (A) DR

(B) BR

(C) ET

(D) CS

Ans : (A)

74. (A) BS

(B) AT

(C) AQ

(D) DQ

Ans : (B)

75. (A) CR

(B) EQ

(C) BQ

(D) DS

Ans : (B)

Bank PO Reasoning Ability Test 02

1. Satyam walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point?
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. Raza walks 100 m from his house towards North. From there he goes 100 m towards West. Here is the house of Satyam. From there they both goes to the market which is in the South-West direction from Satyam's house. If the market is in the West of Raza's house, then how far is the market from Raza's house?
(A) 100 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 400 m
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
3. Ravi goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point?
(A) 4 km, West
(B) 7 km, East
(C) 9 km, East
(D) 7 km, West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. How many 7's are there in the following number series; which are preceded by an even
number but not followed by any odd?
437523721367542742712276572
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (B)
5. How many 5's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 2 ?
5243546785325735642354752358356
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (E)
6. How many 3's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an odd number but not followed by an even number?
3425315213673182785391345235435
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (C)
7. If the numbers which are divisible by 4, from 4 to 84 are written in reverse order then which number will be at the 7th place?
(A) 60
(B) 28
(C) 20
(D) 32
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. How many numbers are there from 5 to 100, which are divisible by 3 and either unit or tenth digit or both include 3 ?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) Less than 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ?
23423425473243192547547234529546
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (A)

10. If the numbers between 4 to 90, which are divisible by 5, and which contain 5 in the unit, tenth or both place, are removed, then how many numbers divisible by 5 will be left?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 18
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Rajan remembers that his elder brother was born between 13th and 16th April while his mother remembers that he was born after 14th April and before 17th April. If the statements of both are considered correct then on which date of April he was born ?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 14 or 15
(D) 15
(E) 15 or 16
Ans : (D)
12. How many numbers are there from 1 to 60, which are divisible by 3 and either unit digit or tenth digit or both include 3 ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C)15
(D) More than 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. If the following numbers are written in descending order then what will be the middle digit of the middle term ?
723, 789, 595, 659, 713, 785, 689
(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) 2
Ans : (A)
14. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger ?
(A) 10.05 a.m.
(B) 9.55 a.m.
(C) 10.35 a.m.
(D) 10.15 a.m.
(E) 10.25 a.m.
Ans : (D)

15. If the numbers between 1 to 65 and divisible by 4 are written in reverse order then which of the following numbers will be at l0th place?
(A) 44
(B) 24
(C) 40
(D) 28
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
16. How many 6's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ?
56765649276743568649567
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded and followed by only an even number?
6432483154232464813242645
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. How many 2's are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by an odd number? .
13523545245226245267823527524
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than four
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
19. How many 3's are there in the following series, which are not preceded by an odd number but followed by 4 ?
15323465347834923456343534
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) One
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. How many B's are there in the following letter-series, which are followed by G but G is not be followed by S ?
BGSQBRNOBGNSQLTBGQTDBGUWXBGF
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
21. How many D's are there in the following letter-series, which are preceded by K and followed by Q ?
KDRMBSKDQKRBLKDQMQDKEFQDK
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits, are removed, then how many numbers will be left?
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 25
(E) None of these.
Ans : (D)
23. At a railway station a man said to Swapna, "A train leaves for Muzaffar Nagar after every 1.45 hours. The last train has already left 50 minutes ago and the next train will leave at 5.15 p.m." At what time this information was given to Swapna ?
(A) 3.30
(B) 2.40
(C) 4.10
(D) 3.50
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
24. A trader said to his servant Ramu, "I leave for my house after every 2.40 hours from his shop. I have already gone to his house 55 minutes ago and next time. I shall go to my house from the shop at 8.15 p.m." At what time this information was given to the servant?
(A) 6.30
(B) 6.00
(C) 6.15
(D) 4.40
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A doctor said to his compounder, "I go to see the patients at their residence after every 3.30 hours. I have already gone to the patient 1.20 hours ago and next time I shall go at 1.40 p.m." At what time this information was given to the compounder by the doctor?
(A) 10.10
(B) 11.30
(C) 8.50
(D) 11.20
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Bank PO Reasoning Question Paper (01)

1.In a certain code language, '3a, 2b, 7c' means 'Truth is Eternal'; '7c, 9a, 8b, 3a' means 'Enmity is not Eternal' and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b' means 'Truth does not perish'. Which of the following means 'enmity' in that language?
(a) 3a
(b) 7c
(c) 8b
(d) 9a
Ans (d)
2. In a certain code language, 'po ki top ma' means 'Usha is playing cards'; 'Kop ja ki ma' means 'Asha is playing tennis'; ki top sop ho' means 'they are playing football'; and 'po sur kop' means 'cards and tennis'. Which word in that language means 'Asha'?
(a) ja
(b) ma
(c) kop
(d) top
Ans (a)
3. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday has again fall on Sunday in
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1977
(d) 1981
Ans (d)
4. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with how many times does it need to be cut?
(a) 9
(b) 23
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans (c)
5. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were wearing the hockey shirts prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. None of them was without either hockey pants or hockey shirts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 7
Ans (b)
6. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and they are 18 in number. Also out of the total strength, the boys form only two third and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in the class is
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 12
(d) 30
Ans (c)
7. 'A' is east of 'B' and west of 'C'. 'H' is South-West of 'C', 'B' is South-East of 'X'. which is farthest West?
(a) C
(b) A
(c) X
(d) B
Ans (c)
8. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What part of her entire year's earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11
(b) 2/13
(c) 3/14
(d) 1/6
Ans (b)
9. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday
(b) 5.00 am on Wednesday
(c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday
(d) 5.00 pm on Wednesday
Ans (b)
10. Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
Statement : Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India. We still continue to import sugar.
Assumptions :
I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
Ans (c)
11. Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
Statement : I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption :
I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)
12. Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals.
Assumptions :
I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (A)
13. Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach their places of work on time.
Assumptions :
I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans (A)
14. Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
Statement : The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing strike of its employees.
Assumptions :
I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
15. Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit
Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.
Assumptions :
I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)
16. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix? A D H
F I M
? N R
(a) P
(b) N
(c) K
(d) O
Ans (c)
17. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix? A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
(a) T
(a) F
(c) V
(d) R
Ans (c)
18. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix? 1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 16 and 8
(b) 36 and 4
(c) 25 and 5
(d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)
19. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix? 6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 8
(d) 4
Ans (c)
20. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) If either I or II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows
Statements:
I. Many scooters are trucks.
II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions:
I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)
21. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements:
I. All cars are cats.
II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions:
I. All cars are fans.
II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)
22. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements:
I. All pilots are experts.
II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions:
I. All authors are experts.
II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)
23. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows.
(d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements:
I. Some doctors are institutes.
II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions:
I. All institutes are doctors.
II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)
24. The letter in the centre is to be used more than once while all other letters are to be used only once to form a meaningful word. The first letter of this meaningful word is the answer. If no such meaningful word can be made, then give 'X' as the answer, and if more than one such meaningful words can be made, then give 'M' as the answer.
(a) L
(b) E
(c) X
(d) M
Ans (c)
25. If the positions of the fifth and the twelfth letters of the word GLORIFICATIONS are interchanged and likewise the positions of the fourth and fourteenth letters, the third and tenth letters, the second and eleventh letters, the first and thirteenth letters, are interchanged, then which of the following will be the twelfth letter from the right end?
(a) T
(b) O
(C) R
(d) 1
Ans (a)

BANK EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS

1) In the Union Budget 2011-12, Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit for individual tax payers from Rs 1 lakh 60 thousand to _?
a.1 lakh 80 thousand
b.1 lakh 90 thousand
c. 2 lakh
d.2 lakh 20 thousand

2) A team from Dalhousie University in Halifax, Canada, discovered that a green alga invades tiny developing salamander embryos. What is this phenomenon called?
a)Symbiosis
b)Photosynthesis
c) Ecdysis
d) Aestivation
3) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir’s I AM?
a.Nandita Das
b.Juhi Chawla
c.Tabu
d.Konkona Sen Sharma

4) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?
a. Lokpal Bill
b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill
c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill

5) Who won the National Jute Board-Kolkata international squash at Calcutta Racket Club on 3 April 2011 after defeating Omar Mosaad?
a.Karim Darwish
b.Khawaja Adil Maqbool
c. Ritwik Bhattacharya
d. Peter Nicol

6) Read the following statements:
1.He won the ATP Miami Masters crown by defeating Nadal and thus remained unbeaten in 2011.
2.He captured all four titles- the Australian Open, Dubai, elite Masters titles at Indian Wells and Miami in 2011.
3.He had won his first Miami Masters title in 2007.
4.He joined Roger Federer, Andre Agassi and Pete Sampras as the only players to win the Australian Open, Indian Wells and Miami in the same year.Identify the tennis player being referred to.
a.Novak Djokovic
b.Roger Federer
c. Andy Murray
d.Rafael Nadal

7) At the National Conference on Kharif Strategies, Agriculture Minister Sharad Pawar on 6 April 2011 mentioned that India has achieved an all-time high production of foodgrains. What was the estimation regarding foodgain production in 2010-11?
a.235.88 million tonnes
b.215 million tonnes
c. 261.34 million tonnes
d. 222.66 million tonnes

8) Which of the following steel plants in India achieved record production of 5.71 million tonnes (mt) of hot metal (a 6.3 per cent growth over 2009-10), 5.33 mt of crude steel (4.3 per cent) and 4.57 mt of saleable steel (4.3 per cent)?
a.Bhillai Steel Plant
b.Rourkela Steel Plant
c. Bokaro Steel Plant
d.Salem Steel Plant
9) The Department of Information Technology (DIT) on 5 April 2011 published a draft policy on which of the following to enable the government departments to provide services, including payment of utility bills and filing of tax with the use of a medium?
a.Mobile governance
b.E-governance
c. Service Delivery Gateway
d.Applications Inter-operability

10) Which of the following was not proposed in the Union Budget 2011-12 presented by pranab Mukherjee?
1.Special vehicles were proposed to be created in the form of Infrastructure Debt Funds to attract foreign funds.
2.Rs. 300 crore expenditure was proposed to promote horticulture centres in rain fed areas for increasing crop productivity.
3.For the manufacturing sector, the budget proposed reduction of basic customs duty on raw silk from 30 to 5 per cent.
4.Concessional 10 per cent Excise Duty was also proposed for fuel cell or Hydrogen cell-technology-based vehicles.

a.1 & 3
b.Only 2
c.Only 4
d.3 & 4

11) Sectors Budgetary Allocations
1.Agriculture & Allied Activities A. Rs 14362 crore
2.Rural Development B. Rs 38852 crore
3.Defence Sector C. Rs 55438 crore
4.Industries & Minerals D. Rs 164415 crore
A B C D
a.1 4 2 3
b.2 1 3 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d.4 2 3 1

12) In the Budget it was proposed to provide sum of money for implementation of vegetable initiative to set in motion a virtuous cycle of higher production and incomes for the farmers. What was the proposed amount?
a.Rs 500 crore
b.Rs 300 crore
c. Rs 10000 crore
d. Rs 650 crore

13) According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.
i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations.
ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Neither I and ii
c) Only i
d) Only ii

14) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Consider the following statements regarding Tsunami.
i) A Tsunami is a series of ocean waves that sends surges of water, reaching heights of over 100 feet onto land.
ii) Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make earthquakes and volcanoes common.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Only i
c) Only ii
d) Neither i nor ii

15) Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged?
a) Gujarat
b) Bihar
c) Haryana
d) Madhya Pradesh

16)Engineering and construction major L&T announced that it has achieved financial closure for which of the following with the help of 10-bank consortium led by SBI pitching in with Rs 11478 crore debt?
a.Kolkata Metro Rail Project
b.Pune Metro Project
c.Delhi Metro project
d.Hyderabad Metro Rail project

17) Indian cricket captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni was offered and accepted the honour of being chosen to get an honorary commission in which of the following?
a.Indian Navy
b.Territorial Army
c. Indian Air Force
d. Indian Para-military Force

18) Which of the following real estate firms on 5 April 2011 announced a gift in the shape of villas worth Rs. 9 crore to skipper M.S. Dhoni and his teammates following their victory in the World Cup 2011?
a.DLF
b.Amrapali
c. Unitech
d.Tata Construction & Projects Ltd

19) Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Murray
c. Fred Perry
d. Rod Laver
20) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was proposed to be being extended to the beneficiaries of which of the following Union Government schemes?
a.Mahatma Gandhi NREGA beneficiaries
b.Beneficiaries of Swavlamban pension scheme
c.Indira Gandhi National old Age Pension scheme beneficiaries
d.Beneficiaries of Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana

21) Which of the following companies announced their alliance with Chennai Super Kings as the official team partner for the upcoming IPL Season 4?
a. ONGC
b. Indian Oil Corporation
c. Hindusthan Petroleum
d. Gulf Oil Corporation

22) Scientists have identified five genes which raise the risk of Alzheimer’s disease. Consider the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s disease.
i) Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of Dementia.
ii) Problems that happen due to the Alzheimer’s are personality-disorder, decision making, abstract thinking and loss of initiative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only i
b) Only ii
c) Both i and ii
d) Neither i nor ii

23) A giant predatory theropod dinosaur, similar in stature and size to Tyrannosaurus rex, has been identified by palaeontologists. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i) The new dinosaur, named Zhuchengtyrannus magnus, probably stood four metres tall, was 11 metres long and weighed around six tonnes.
ii) Like T. rex, it was a carnivore with huge powerful jaws.
iii) It ran on back legs, with small front limbs.
a) Only i and ii
b) Only i and iii
c) Only ii and iii
d) All i, ii and iii are correct

24) Solvay, the Belgian soda ash maker which sold a drugs unit a year ago, agreed to buy which of the following French companies to add specialty chemicals spanning ingredients for moisturisers and car-part polymers?
a.Rhodia
b.Danisco
c.Cognis
d.Le Zèbre

25) Gilead Sciences, a California based bio-pharmaceutical research firm, and its patent partner, Roche Holding AG, have sued which of the following Indian generic drug makers in March 2011 for allegedly infringing a US patent for Tamiflu, a drug used in treatment of bird and swine-flu infections?
a.Dr Reddy’s
b.Natco Pharma
c. Ranbaxy Laboratories
d. GlaxoSmithKline
26) AT&T on Sunday announced that it had agreed to buy T-Mobile USA from which of the following telecom companies for $39 billion?
a.Deutsche Telekom
b.Sprint Nextel
c.Verizon Wireless
d.Comcast

27) What is the prize-money of the golf tournament ‘Avantha Masters’ that began on 11 Feb 2010?
a. €1.5 million
b. €1 million
c. €2.5 million
d. €2 million
28) An international team of scientists, led by the Australian National University recently discovered evidence that the body’s immune cells often share information about foreign substances with each other to ward of invaders. The study can help increase the immunity level in human body against pathogens and cancer. Which of the followings are the symptoms of Cancer?
i) Weight Loss
ii) Excessive Sweating
iii) Lumps and Swelling (tumour)
iv) Enlargement of Spleen
Please choose the correct option:
a) i, ii, iii and iv
b) i and ii only
c) i, ii and iii
d) only i

29) Which of the following companies in April 2011 filed a petition in the Supreme Court to block penal action initiated by the Income Tax authorities on its contested $2.5-billion tax bill?
a. Vodafone International
b. Bharti Airtel
c. Uninor
d. Tata Teleservices

30) Vivendi agreed to buy Vodafone Group’s 44% stake in which of the French mobile-phone operator’s for euro 7.95 billion ($11.3 billion) to win full control of its largest unit and secure more stable earnings?
a.T-Mobile
b.Orange
c. Virgin Mobile
d. SFR

31) A consortium comprising two companies acquired the IPL’s global Internet, mobile and audio rights, along with television rights in specific territories outside India, for the next four years. The consortium bagged the rights with a winning bid of Rs 261.6 crore in Chennai on 20 March 2011. Which are the two companies included in the consortium?
a. TIL & Nimbus Communication
b. Reliance Big Pictures & Zoom
c. TIL & Colors
d. Zoom and UTV Motion Pictures

32) Which chess player won his maiden Grand Master norm in the Chennai Open 2010 International Grand Master chess tournament on 1 Feb 2010?
a. R. Siddharth of Chennai
b. Kravtsiv of Ukraine
c. P. Shyam Nikhil of Tamil Nadu
d. Maxim Turov of Russia

33) Who was appointed member of ICC Cricket Committee as a representative of national coaches on 11 Feb 2010?
a. Gary Kirsten
b. Mark Taylor
c. Kumar Sangakkara
d. Tim May
34) At the European Geosciences Union meeting in Vienna, the scientists calculated that the Earth sees about __ thunderstorms every hour.
a) 670
b) 580
c) 760
d) 960

35) HCL Technologies on Thursday announced the expansion of its Smart Grid partner ecosystem by entering into strategic alliances with two data management software firms focused on the smart grid market. Which are the two firms with which HCL has entered into an alliance?
1. Infosys
2. eMeter
3. Cape Gemini
4. Tridium
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 2 & 4
d. 1 & 4

36) The Gujarat Government banned controversial book, entitled Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and his struggle with India. Who is the author of the book?
a) Joseph Lelyveld
b) Joseph Ponting
c) Hugh Grant
d) Vikram Seth

37) Which one of the following states imposed a blanket ban on plastic bags?
a) Delhi
b) Haryana
c) Himachal Pradesh
d)Tamil Nadu

38) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification?
a) Sharmila Tagore
b) Karan Johar
c) Nafisa Ali
d) Om Puri
e) None of these

39) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of
a) Israel
b) Iran
c) Afghanistan
d) Indonesia

40) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)?
a) AP Singh
b) Arun Shourie
c) Sanjeev Tripathi
d) BK Gupta

41) When is the National Youth Day observed?
a) January 14
b) February 14
c) August 31
d) January 12

42) What is Tejas?
A) Spacecraft
B) Missile
C) Submarine
D) Light combat aircraft

43) Who became the world number one badminton player?
a) Saina Nehwal
b) Wang Xin
c) Sania Mirza
d) Wang Shixian

44) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australia’s ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010?
a. Shane Watson
b. Simon Katich
c. Mitchell Johnson
d. Sachin Tendulkar

45) In India’s first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.
a.Tata Steel
b.Pantallons Retail
c. RIL
d.Maruti Suzuki

46) With his victory in the men’s large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson.
a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland)
b. Ahonen Janne (Finland)
c. Alexander Nicholas (USA)
d. Bardal Anders (Norway)

47) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in roll- out of services in these three circles?
a.Sistema Shyam Teleservices
b.Tata Teleservices
c. Reliance
d. BSNL

48) Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these

49) Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI

50) As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt.?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services

(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A34) C 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) E 50) C

Punjab National Bank Specialist Officers Exam 2010

English Language : Solved Paper (Held on 4-10-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

What Indian politicians and bureaucrats share with their scientist, engineer and carpenter counterparts is their acceptance of mediocrity and lack of skill. The greatest moral failure of Indian institutions is the tolerance of incompetence, …(1)… criminality or corruption. The tolerance of incompetence in …(2)… is a result of a low cultural value attached to the creation and …(3)… of institutions.

Institution building is a hard work; it requires a combination of vision, commitment and performance. Any institution involves a contract between those who …(4)… to the institution and those who support it. The support can take the form of money or votes but that support must be …(5)… continuously. In a properly functioning institutional system, the institutional contract …(6)… the institution members and their supporters takes the form : you give me support and I will give you results. Competence is the channel that sustains the flow of trust from supporters to institutions and back. If doctors don’t cure will they not lose our trust ? While blaming individual politicians and babus for their corrupt ways, let us also examine the system that accepts mediocrity and even lets it …(7)….

What we are seeing in India is a case of contract failure. The contractor who bribes an official and then builds a leaky stadium is not just being …(8)…. He is sustaining a collusive system that subverts rules regulating mutual co-operation between government institutions, market players and society as a whole. In the case of endemic contract failure everyone …(9)…, including the contractor, for once the public loses its trust in institution is even businessmen will …(10)… out on opportunities to make money. The moral status of institutions is central to continued development and prosperity.

1. (A) as
(B) to
(C) never
(D) not
(E) for
Ans : (D)

2. (A) turn
(B) individual
(C) world
(D) partly
(E) importance
Ans : (B)

3. (A) destruction
(B) justification
(C) sustenance
(D) excess
(E) marginalization
Ans : (C)


4. (A) belong
(B) work
(C) help
(D) employed
(E) trust
Ans : (A)

5. (A) returned
(B) earned
(C) needed
(D) discouraged
(E) asked
Ans : (C)

6. (A) suggests
(B) akin
(C) twosome
(D) centered
(E) between
Ans : (E)

7. (A) question
(B) bolder
(C) thrive
(D) out
(E) kill
Ans : (C)

8. (A) variant
(B) trivial
(C) immature
(D) corrupt
(E) generous
Ans : (D)

9. (A) succeeds
(B) suffers
(C) proliferates
(D) responsible
(E) encompasses
Ans : (B)

10. (A) storm
(B) venture
(C) lose
(D) get
(E) walk
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) Thus, if we really value it, we will work hard to make it a reality.
(b) Inner peace is the most elusive thing that a human being can seek.
(c) The most important criterion in order to experience it is to value the importance of inner peace.
(d) To experience inner peace one doesn’t have to retreat to a Himalayan cave; rather, one can experience inner peace seated exactly where they are by watching these thoughts.
(e) Nobody can gift the other inner peace at the same time it is only one’s own thoughts that can rob them of their inner peace.

11. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (C)

12. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (e)
(B) (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (b)
(E) (a)
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (e)
(B) (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (b)
(E) (a)
Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (B)

15. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. After ……… payrolls and tightening perks to cope with the economic slowdown last year, software companies are finding that a rising number of engineering and management graduates are transferring their ……… to vocations such as manufacturing and banking.
(A) trimming - loyalties
(B) reducing - accounts
(C) hiking - services
(D) increased - affections
(E) dropped – potentials
Ans : (A)

17. It is very important to ……… that when the swine flu virus enters a human body, it takes a minimum of one day to a maximum of eight days for the disease to develop ……….
(A) gauge - extensively
(B) ascertain - further
(C) understand - fully
(D) verify - remarkably
(E) fathom – clearly
Ans : (C)

18. Scientists, working to save the earth, have ……… ‘dry water’ that soaks carbon three times better than water, and hence helps ……… global warming.
(A) aided - cut
(B) created - combat
(C) built - stop
(D) produced - increase
(E) invented – monitoring
Ans : (B)

19. The first round of the contest had the students ……… themselves and ……… about their hobbies.
(A) introducing - talking
(B) sensitizing - sketching
(C) showcasing - planning
(D) acclimatizing - mentioning
(E) gearing – chalking
Ans : (D)

20. The varsity’s poll process for ……… of new candidates has ……… poor response with only ten thousand applications being received till date.
(A) entrusting - seen
(B) registration - evoked
(C) entrance - made
(D) admission - visited
(E) experimenting – generated
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

21. Initially, shop owners tried to (A) / offer some resistance to the demolition but (B) / seeing the heavy presence of the police force, (C) / their resistance faded off. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

22. Cleanliness drives will be (A) / conducted in various localities (B) / to opening the drains blocked (C) / with polythene bags. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. The results of the study showed that (A) / if the partners were willing to talk to each other (B) / and arrive at a mutually agreeable decision,` (C) / the joint decisions were more better than any one person’s judgment. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

24. A year after the global financial crisis saw (A) / students from the best B-schools across the world struggling for a job, (B) / a survey on management education this year thrown (C) / up some rather interesting findings. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. The district authorities are making (A) / a last-ditch attempt to provide (B) / alternative solutions to farmers but (C) / the options is clearly inadequate. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

At the time when the unfortunate incident of the ‘accidental’ exposure to radiation that affected workers and waste collectors in Delhi as they handled radioactive material, took place, the issue of waste disposal, particularly hazardous waste, made the headlines. The lives of those who live off collecting and sorting waste came into out line of vision. But then the issue disappeared.

Long term policies that ensure that the safety and health of those who do such an essential job – “a community of silent environmentalists” someone called them – are not such a high priority any more. One reason is that the people affected are virtually invisible.

Waste collectors around India work silently, often late into the night, sorting out mountains of waste, foraging for anything that can be sold. If you walk down some streets of Central Mumbai after 11 at night, you will see an army of waste collectors. Men, women, children are all hard at work. They work through the night and finally manage to get some sleep on the doorsteps of the shops on those streets. By daylight they become invisible, having stowed their belongings in boxes behind the signs of the shops on whose doorsteps they sleep. These are the people of the night, not noticed by those who inhabit the areas in the day.

What is often not entirely appreciated is that a substantial percentage of waste collectors is women. According to a study, 85 per cent of waste collectors in the city are women, five per cent are children and 10 per cent are men. The majority of them are poor and landless people who came to the city because of drought in their villages. The age group ranges from 7 to 70 years and 98 per cent of them are illiterate. A survey of 60,000 waste collectors found a similar proportion : 60 per cent women, 20 per cent men and 20 per cent children. Studies have revealed that 90 per cent of the women waste pickers are primary bread-winners, often widowed or deserted. It is interesting how the gender division of labour plays out even in the business of waste. While women, and children, do the more hazardous job of sorting and separating the waste, the men deal with the dry garbage, which they transport to wholesalers and factories. As a result, it is the women who are exposed to hazardous waste – none of them wear any kind of protective gear – and also face the physical problems of constantly bending and carrying head loads of the waste. Look at any group of waste collectors and you will spot the bent old women who have been performing this function for decades.

In the slum-city of Mumbai, waste collectors experience the most acute degree of homelessness. While poor people in other kinds of jobs somehow manage to find some shelter in a slum, irrespective of whether it is legal or illegal, waste collectors sleep next to the garbage they have sorted. This is their “wealth”, something they have to protect after they have collected and sorted it until they can monetize it. Hence, near many garbage dumps, even in the better off localities of cities like Mumbai, you see families of waste pickers asleep in the morning. And most often you see only women and children.

Why bring up waste collectors at a time when the main environmental issues being debated are the larger issues of global warming, or environmental disasters such as the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico ? This is because one cannot speak of the environment without considering its impact on the lives of people. We have hundreds of small-scale and continuing environmental disasters taking place all around us. But we overlook them so long as they do not impact our lives or our lifestyles. Millions of waste pickers in India, who play a crucial role in dealing with the perennial environmental crisis of waste, risk their lives and their health every single day. This is an on-going environmental issue that requires as much attention from ordinary people, the media and policy makers as the larger macro issues.

26. Why are long term policies favouring waste collectors not high priority ?
(A) The Government is currently contemplating over the effects of the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico and does not have time for other issues.
(B) The plight of these people is not evident as they work late into the night and are not seen much during the day.
(C) The Government is unable to see these people at all and thus is not aware of their existence.
(D) These waste collectors themselves are not in favour of being brought into the organized sector because of the numerous complications involved.
(E) As previous such favourable policies failed to improve the conditions of these waste collectors as they were not implemented effectively.
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following is true about waste collectors as given in the passage ?
1. Majority of waste collectors are people who have migrated from their village because of some natural calamity.
2. Waste collectors prefer to sleep next to the garbage they have sorted.
3. Most waste collectors are not literate.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are true.
Ans : (E)

28. Why are women waste collectors at a disadvantage as compared to the men waste collectors as mentioned in the passage ?
(A) The men sell the waste collected by the women to wholesalers and keep all the money to themselves without sharing it with the women.
(B) The women do the more dangerous and physical work of sorting through the garbage whereas men mostly transport dry garbage.
(C) Men wear protective gear while sorting through the garbage thereby shielding themselves from the ill effects of being exposed to the waste.
(D) The men force their wives and children to work for them whereas the women do not have this luxury.
(E) The men are not as affected by the waste as the women waste collectors because of the difference in their physical constitution.
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The General Public’s Apathetic ways
(B) The Unorganized Sector
(C) The Invisible Waste
(D) Waste Collectors – The World Over
(E) Recognizing the ‘Work’ in ‘Dirty Work’
Ans : (B)

30. Why, according to the author, is the issue of waste collectors as important as the issue of global warming ?
1. As most waste collectors in big cities are children who are ultimately the future of our nation.
2. As without the waste collectors sorting waste the phenomenon of global warming would increase exponentially.
3. As waste collectors deal with wastage which impacts the people’s everyday lives and is also environmentally significant.
(A) Only (2) and (3)
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–33) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

31. INHABIT
(A) Reside in
(B) Encompass
(C) Infest
(D) Submerge
(E) Are used to
Ans : (A)

32. FORAGING
(A) Penetrating
(B) Incising
(C) Probing
(D) Begging
(E) Searching
Ans : (E)

33. MONETIZE
(A) Currency
(B) Buy
(C) Encash
(D) Regulate
(E) Pay
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 34–35) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

34. CONSIDERING
(A) Untying
(B) Remembering
(C) Understanding
(D) Disregarding
(E) Condemning
Ans : (D)

35. HAZARDOUS
(A) Pleasant
(B) Efficient
(C) Important
(D) Risky
(E) Harmless
Ans : (E)

Punjab and Sind Bank Clerk Exam 2010

Computer Knowledge : Solved Paper (Held on 23-5-2010)

1. Memory, also called random access memory, or RAM……….
(A) contains the electronic circuits that cause processing to occur
(B) makes the information resulting from processing available for use
(C) allows data, programs, commands, and user responses to be entered into a computer
(D) consists of electronic components that store data
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. Correcting errors in a program is referred to as………
(A) debugging
(B) bugging
(C) rectifying
(D) modifying
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. An assembler is used to translate a program written in………
(A) a low level language
(B) machine language
(C) a high level language
(D) assembly language
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


4. The capability of the operating system to enable two or more than two programs to execute simultaneously in a single computer system by using a single processor is………
(A) Multiprocessing
(B) Multitasking
(C) Multiprogramming
(D) Multiexecution
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. The basic goal of computer process is to convert data into……
(A) information
(B) tables
(C) files
(D) graphs
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. A hard copy of a document is …
(A) stored in the hard disk
(B) stored on a floppy
(C) stored on a CD
(D) printed on the printer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following is not an output device ?
(A) Plotter
(B) Printer
(C) Scanner
(D) Monitor
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. Which keys can be used together with other keys for special tasks ?
(A) Insert, Delete
(B) Ctrl, Shift
(C) Left Arrow, Right Arrow
(D) Page up, Page Down
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?
(A) Programs
(B) Software
(C) Hardware
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. Computers gather data, which means they allow users to…… data.
(A) present
(B) store
(C) output
(D) input
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. CPU stands for……
(A) CD-run on memory
(B) central processing unit
(C) call powers up
(D) create programs user
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. Moves the cursor one space to the right to puts spaces in between words……
(A) control key
(B) space bar
(C) printer
(D) mouse
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Use this when you want to make all letters capital without having to use the shift key for each character………
(A) shifter
(B) upper case
(C) caps lock key
(D) icon
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. A device that reads the information contained on a disk and transfers it to the computer’s memory……
(A) monitor
(B) screen
(C) keyboard
(D) disk drive
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following is not the major function of a computer ?
(A) Processing data into information
(B) Storing data or information
(C) Gathering data
(D) Analysing data or information
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

16. A disk on which you store information………
(A) plate
(B) data disk
(C) paper disk
(D) TV disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. Allows you to print……
(A) ribbon
(B) monitor
(C) go now
(D) Control-P
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. Easy to use……
(A) user friendly
(B) select
(C) helpful
(D) ever-ready
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. When your computer stops working suddenly, it is referred to as a……
(A) crash
(B) die
(C) death
(D) penalty
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

20. The smallest item of useful information a computer can handle…
(A) bite
(B) byte
(C) bit
(D) bait
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. Devices that let the computer communicate with you……
(A) input
(B) output
(C) type
(D) print
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. Devices that allow you to put information into the computer ……
(A) input
(B) output
(C) type
(D) print
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Eight bits of data……
(A) octabit
(B) word
(C) sentence
(D) byte
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. The secret code that gives you access to some programs……
(A) clue
(B) cue
(C) password
(D) help
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. The different styles of lettering in a word processing program……
(A) font
(B) calligraphy
(C) writing
(D) manuscript
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. Any letter, number, or symbol found on the keyboard that you can type into the computer……
(A) output
(B) character
(C) type
(D) print
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. A symbol or question on the screen that prompts you to take action and tell the computer what to do next……
(A) scanner
(B) questionnaire
(C) prompt and dialog box
(D) information seeker
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. Choices are referred to as……
(A) options
(B) exit
(C) boot
(D) folder
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. Anything written on the screen ……
(A) cursor
(B) text
(C) folder
(D) boot
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. Lets you leave a screen or program……
(A) boot
(B) programs
(C) exit
(D) text
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. Instructions that tell the computer what to do. Another name for software……
(A) programs
(B) CPU
(C) options
(D) folder
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. A program which helps create written documents and lets you go back and make corrections as necessary……
(A) spreadsheet
(B) personal writer
(C) word printer
(D) word processor
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. A place that a user can create to store files……
(A) cursor
(B) text
(C) folder
(D) boot
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Start or restart the computer……
(A) exit
(B) kick
(C) boot
(D) kick-start
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. A blinking indicator that shows you where your next action will happen……
(A) CPU
(B) cursor
(C) tool bar
(D) boot
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. Commands at the top of a screen such as : FILE-EDIT-FONT-TOOLS to operate and change things within programs……
(A) menu bar
(B) tool bar
(C) user friendly
(D) word processor
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

37. CD-ROM stands for……
(A) central processing unit
(B) CD-remote open mouse
(C) CD-resize or minimize
(D) CD-read only memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. To change written work already done……
(A) file
(B) edit
(C) cut
(D) close
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

39. A place in the computer system where data and programs are temporarily stored……
(A) paste
(B) open
(C) memory
(D) pocket
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. A key that will erase information from the computerÕs memory and characters on the screen……
(A) edit
(B) delete key
(C) dummy out
(D) trust key
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

41. To insert a copy of the clipboard contents, whatever was last cut or copied at the insertion point……
(A) paste
(B) stick in
(C) fit in
(D) push in
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

42. The command used to remove text or graphics from a document. The information is then stored on a clipboard so you can paste it.
(A) chop
(B) cut
(C) clip
(D) cart away
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

43. To exit the program without leaving the application……
(A) file
(B) edit
(C) copy
(D) close
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

44. A removable magnetic disc that holds information……
(A) floppy disk
(B) hard drive
(C) monitor
(D) portable
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

45. A command that saves what you are working on into the hard drive, or onto a disk……
(A) view
(B) hold
(C) save
(D) go
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

46. A command to get a file you worked on from the memory where it was stored……
(A) close
(B) delete
(C) open
(D) get it
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. To move down a page in a document……
(A) jump
(B) fly
(C) wriggle
(D) scroll
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

48. The primary device that a computer uses to store information……
(A) TV
(B) storehouse
(C) desk
(D) hard drive
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

49. Screen that comes on when you turn on your computer that shows all the icons……
(A) desktop
(B) face to face
(C) viewer
(D) view space
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

50. A program that works like a calculator for keeping track of money and making budgets……
(A) calculator
(B) spreadsheet
(C) budgeter
(D) financier
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam 2010

Marketing and Computer Knowledge : Solved Paper (Held on 4-4-2010)


1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
1. Marketing function includes—
(A) Designing new products
(B) Advertisements
(C) Publicity
(D) After sales service
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

2. Lead generation can be resorted to by browsing—
(A) Telephone directories
(B) Yellow pages
(C) Internet sites
(D) List of existing customers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

3. Effective selling skills depend on—
(A) Effective lead generation
(B) Sales Call Planning
(C) Territory Allocation
(D) Effective communication skills
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

4. Market Information means—
(A) Knowledge level of marketing staff
(B) Information about marketing staff
(C) Information regarding Share market
(D) Knowledge of related markets
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

5. Marketing channels mean—
(A) Delivery period
(B) Delivery time
(C) Delivery outlets
(D) Delivery place
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)


6. ‘Buyer Resistance’ means—
(A) Buyer’s interest in the product being sold
(B) Buyer fighting with the seller
(C) Buyer’s hesitation in buying the product
(D) Buyer becoming a seller
(E) Buyer buying the product
Ans : (C)

7. Marketing is the function of—
(A) Sales persons
(B) Production Department
(C) Planning Department
(D) Team leaders
(E) A collective function of all staff
Ans : (E)

8. A DSA means—
(A) Direct Service Agency
(B) Direct Selling Agent
(C) Double Selling Agent
(D) Distribution Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Service Marketing is resorted to in—
(A) All manufacturing companies
(B) All production houses
(C) Export units
(D) Insurance companies and banks
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

10. Marketing is—
(A) A skilled person’s job
(B) A one day function
(C) A one time act
(D) Required only when a new product is launched
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. Market share refers to—
(A) Share market prices
(B) Price fluctuation in the market
(C) Share issue floated by the company
(D) Share of wallet
(E) Share of business of the company as compared to peers
Ans : (E)

12. Service Marketing is the same as—
(A) Internet marketing
(B) Telemarketing
(C) Internal Marketing
(D) Relationship Marketing
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

13. Current Accounts can be freely opened by ………… Find the incorrect answer.
(A) All NRIs
(B) All businessmen
(C) Government departments
(D) Firms and Companies
(E) HUFs
Ans : (E)

14. Buyer Resistance can be overcome by—
(A) Cordial relation between buyer and seller
(B) Good negotiation
(C) Persuasive communication
(D) Good after sales service
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

15. Cross-selling is useful for canvassing—
(A) Current Accounts
(B) Fixed Deposit Accounts
(C) Student loans
(D) Car loans
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

16. Market segmentation helps to determine—
(A) Target groups
(B) Sale price
(C) Profit levels
(D) Product life cycle
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

17. The target group for Car loans is—
(A) Auto manufacturing companies
(B) Car dealers
(C) Taxi drivers
(D) Car purchasers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. The best promotional tool in any marketing is—
(A) e-promotion
(B) Public Relations
(C) Viral marketing
(D) Word of mouth publicity
(E) Advertisements
Ans : (E)

19. Customisation results in—
(A) Customer exodus
(B) Customer retention
(C) Customer complaints
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. The target group for Education Loans is—
(A) All parents
(B) All Professors
(C) All Research Scholars
(D) All Tutorial Colleges
(E) All College Students
Ans : (E)

21. Find the correct sentence.
(A) Higher the price, higher are the sales
(B) More sales persons lead to more sales
(C) Mission statement is part of a Market Plan
(D) Better sales incentives means better performance
(E) All customers are profitable customers
Ans : (C)

22. Good marketing strategy envisages good and proper—
(A) Product development
(B) Promotion and Distribution
(C) Pricing
(D) Relationship management
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

23. Savings Accounts can be opened by—
(A) All individuals fulfilling KYC norms
(B) All individuals earning more than Rs. 1,00,000 per annum
(C) All individuals above the age of 18
(D) All salaried persons only
(E) All students below the age of 18
Ans : (C)

24. Situation Analysis is useful for—
(A) SWOT Analysis
(B) Analysis of Sales person’s performances
(C) Analysis of capital markets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. Information that comes from an external source and fed into computer software is called—
(A) Input
(B) Output
(C) Throughput
(D) Reports
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. With a CD you can—
(A) Read
(B) Write
(C) Neither Read nor Write
(D) Both Read and Write
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. Errors in a computer program are referred to as—
(A) bugs
(B) mistakes
(C) item overlooked
(D) blunders
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following are computers that can be carried around easily ?
(A) Laptops
(B) Supercomputers
(C) PCs
(D) Minicomputers
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

29. What menu is selected to change font and style ?
(A) Tools
(B) File
(C) Format
(D) Edit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. Where is the disk put in a computer ?
(A) In the hard drive
(B) In the disk drive
(C) Into the CPU
(D) In the modem
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. A computer’s hard disk is—
(A) an arithmetic and logical unit
(B) computer software
(C) operating system
(D) computer hardware
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. A compiler is used to translate a program written in—
(A) a low level language
(B) a high level language
(C) assembly language
(D) machine language
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. In programming, you use the following keys—
(A) Arrow keys
(B) Function keys
(C) Alpha keys
(D) page up and Page Down keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which keys enable the input of numbers quickly ?
(A) Function keys
(B) The numeric keypad
(C) Ctrl, shift and alt
(D) Arrow keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Files are organized by storing them in—
(A) tables
(B) databases
(C) folders
(D) graphs
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

36. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—
(A) entry-code
(B) passport
(C) password
(D) access-code
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Advertisements are not required in—
(A) Public Sector banks
(B) Private Sector banks
(C) Government concerns
(D) Profit making companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

38. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer system is through the use of a—
(A) plotter
(B) scanner
(C) printer
(D) keyboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

39. Computer programs are also known as—
(A) operating systems
(B) documents
(C) peripherals
(D) applications
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. A collection of unprocessed items is ………
(A) information
(B) data
(C) memory
(D) reports
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

41. ……… is when the more powerhungry components, such as the monitor and the hard drive, are put in idle.
(A) Hibernation
(B) Power down
(C) Standby mode
(D) The shutdown procedure
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

42. ……… is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Tracking
(B) Formatting
(C) Crashing
(D) Allotting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

43. A saved document is referred to as a ………
(A) file
(B) word
(C) folder
(D) project
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?
(A) GB
(B) KB
(C) MB
(D) TB
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. The operating system is the most common type of ……… software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. A ……… is approximately one billion bytes.
(A) kilobyte
(B) bit
(C) gigabyte
(D) megabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. A scanner scans—
(A) Pictures
(B) Text
(C) Both Pictures and Text
(D) Neither Pictures nor Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Dumb terminals have terminals and—
(A) Mouse
(B) Speakers
(C) Keyboard
(D) Mouse or Speakers
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

49. The portion of the CPU that coordinates the activities of all the other computer components is the—
(A) motherboard
(B) coordination board
(C) control unit
(D) arithmetic logic unit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n)—
(A) version
(B) patch
(C) tutorial
(D) FAQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

ICICI PO Quantitative Aptitude

Q.51-55.In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
Q.51. 6 12 36 144 722 4320 30240
(1) 36
(2) 4320
(3) 722
(4) 144
(5) None of these

Q.52. 9261 6859 4913 3375 2197 1321 729
(1) 1321
(2) 6859
(3) 2197
(4) 4913
(5) None of these

Q.53. 3 5 8 75 1125 84375 94921875
(1) 94921875
(2) 8
(3) 75
(4) 1125
(5) None of these

Q.54. 4 5 9 20 34 59 95
(1) 9
(2) 34
(3) 59
(4) 95
(5) None of these

Q.55. 2 13 76 377 1506 4507 9008
(1) 13
(2) 9008
(3) 4507
(4) 1506
(5) None of these

Q.56-60.What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q.56. 3√175616

(1) 53

(2) 46

(3) 63

(4) 66

(5) None of these

Q.57. 1888 ÷ 32 ÷ 8 = ?

(1) 472

(2) 7.375

(3) 29.5

(4) 9.485

(5) None of these

Q.58. 42.3 × 22.3 × 81.7 = ?

(1) 64

(2) 512

(3) 16

(4) 4096

(5) None of these

Q.59. 18.8 × ? × 14.2 = 5232.416

(1) 20.3

(2) 17.4

(3) 19.6

(4) 16.8

(5) None of these

Q.60. 2 4/7 + 2 2/5 + 1 3/8 = ?

(1) 6 97/280

(2) 8 47/140

(3) 8 67/280

(4) 6 23/140

(5) None of these

Q.61-65.What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

Q.61. √1850 =?

(1) 43

(2) 56

(3) 32

(4) 28

(5) 65

Q.62. 17.998 × 23.005 × 11.99 = ?

(1) 3824

(2) 4055

(3) 5138

(4) 5446

(5) 4964

Q.63. 9876.5 ÷ 18.5 ÷ 3.2 = ?

(1) 128

(2) 194

(3) 152

(4) 167

(5) 179

Q.64. (18.6)3 = ?

(1) 7245

(2) 5225

(3) 6435

(4) 7705

(5) 8045

Q.65 2225/7 *867/5 *119/4 =?

(1) 1511345

(2) 1639714

(3) 1851216

(4) 1420165

(5) 1583628

Q.66 – 70. In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both equations and– Give answer If

(1) X > Y

(2) X > Y

(3) X < Y (4) X < Y (5) X = Y or the relationship cannot be established Q.66. I. X2 + 9 X + 20 = 0 II. Y2 + 13 Y + 42 = 0 Q.67. I. X2 + 11X + 24 = 0 II. Y2 + 12Y + 35 = 0 Q.68. I. 2X + 3Y = 14 II. 4X + 2Y = 16 Q.69. I. X2 + 7X + 12 = 0 II. Y2 + 10 Y + 24 = 0 Q.70. I. X2 + 28 = 11X II. Y2 – 15Y+ 56 = 0 Q.71.In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘CREAM’ be arranged ? (1) 480 (2) 120 (3) 260 (4) 25 (5) None of these Q.72. What will be the difference between the simple interest and compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 19200 at the end of 3 years @ 12 p. c.p.a. ? (1) Rs. 722.6826 (2) Rs. 802.5144 (3) Rs. 862.6176 (4) Rs. 798.1824 (5) None of these Q.73. A 240 metre long train crosses a platform in 20 seconds. What is the speed of the train? (1) 10 metres/sec (2) 12 metres/sec. (3) 18 metres/sec. (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Q.74. The number obtained after interchanging the digits of a two digit number is greater than the original number by 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 13, what is the original number? (1) 67 (2) 58 (3) 76 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Q.75. The average of the ages of a man and his daughter is 34. If the respective ratio of their ages after four years from now is 14 : 5, what is the daughter’s present age ? (1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 10 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Q.76-80.Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow. Percentage of students in six different colleges Total Number of students = 3500

Percentage of girls in each of the college
Total Number of Girls = 1800

Q.76. What is the number of girls in College D ?

(1) 188

(2) 192

(3) 176

(4) 164

(5) None of these

Q.77. Which college has the lowest number of girls ?

(1) B

(2) F

(3) E

(4) D

(5) None of these

Q.78. The number of boys from College A form what percent of total number of students from that college? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 56.29

(2) 22.83

(3) 38.41

(4) 43.67

(5) None of these

Q.79. What is the total number of boys from colleges E & F together?

(1) 310

(2) 215

(3) 283

(4) 251

(5) None of these

Q.80. Which college has the maximum number of boys?

(1) C

(2) D

(3) A

(4) B

(5) None of these

Q.81-85. Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :

Number of students studying in six different classes of six different schools

Q.81. What is the respective ratio of students studying in Class IX of schools Q & R together to those studying in class VI of schools S & T together ?

(1) 181 : 127

(2) 150 : 143

(3) 127 : 181

(4) 143 : 150

(5) None of these

Q.82. The number of students studying in Class VII from School U form what percent of the total number of students from all the classes together from that school ? rounded off to two digit after decimal

(1) 18.28

(2) 15.93

(3) 16.14

(4) 17.36

(5) None of these

Q.83. Number of studying in Class X from school P form approximately what percent of the total number of students studying in Class X from all schools together ?

(1) 24

(2) 9

(3) 12

(4) 29

(5) 16

Q.84. Which class has the maximum number of students from all schools together ?

(1) VI

(2) X

(3) VIII

(4) V

(5) None of these

Q.85. Total number of students studying in School T from all classes together form what percent of total number of students studying in School S from all classes together ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 100.26

(2) 103.52

(3) 101.78

(4) 102.64

(5) None of these

Q.86-90. Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow. Percent increase in profit of two companies over the years

Q.86. What is the percent increase in profit of Company A in the year 2006 from the previous year ?

(1) 60

(2) 5

(3) 10

(4) 45

(5) None of these

Q.87. If the profit of Company B in the year 2002 was Rs. 679 995 what would its profit have been in the year 2001 ?

(1) Rs. 503700

(2) Rs. 501500

(3) Rs. 453330

(4)Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Q.88. What is the percent increase in percent increase in profit of Company A in the year 2007 from the previous year ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 9.09

(2) 8.12

(3) 10.11

(4) 7.64

(5) None of these

Q.89. Based on the graph, which of the following statements is TRUE ?

(1) There is no increase in the profit of Company B in the year 2003 from the previous year

(2) Company B has made the highest profit in the year 2007

(3) Company A has made the lowest profit in the year 2003

(4) Company B has made more amount of profit than Company A over the years

(5) None of these

Q.90. What is the increase in the percent in profit of Company A in the year 2004 from the previous year ?

(1) 25

(2) 5

(3) 15

(4) 10

Q.91-95.Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :

Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six different Subjects

Q.91. What are the average marks obtained by all students together in Hindi ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(1) 42.83

(2) 44.62

(3) 41.54

(4) 43.28

(5) None of these

Q.92. What are total marks obtained by Tanya in all the subjects together ?

(1) 418

(2) 412

(3) 408

(4) 402

(5) None of these

Q.93. If to pass in the exam the minimum marks required in Maths are 95 and in Social studies are 85, how many students will pass ?

(1) One

(2) Three

(3) Two

(4) Four

(5) None of these

Q.94. What is Riya’s overall percentage of marks in all subjects together ?

(1) 75.6

(2) 68.3

(3) 72.8

(4) 71.2

(5) None of these

Q.95. Which students has scored the highest marks in all subjects together ?

(1) Prasad

(2) Riya

(3) Ravi

(4) Amit

(5) None of these

Q.96-100.Study the information carefully and answer the questions that follow :

A school consists of 2800 students. The ratio of boy to girls is 5 : 9 respectively. All the students are enrolled in hobby classes viz. Dancing, singing and Painting, 12 percent of the boys learn only singing. 16 percent of the girls learn only Dancing. The number of students enrolled only in Paint- ing is 925.One-fourth of the boys are enrolled in all three classes i.e. Dancing, Singing and Paint- ing. Number of girls are enrolled in all the three classes i.e. Dancing, Singing and Painting. 23 percent of the boys are enrolled only in Dancing and the remaining are enrolled in only Painting.

Q.96. What is respective ratio of the number of boys enrolled only in Dancing to the number of girls enrolled in the same ?

(1) 117 : 125

(2) 127 : 154

(3) 115 : 144

(4) 121 : 162

(5) None of these

Q.97. What is the number of girls enrolled in all the three classes i.e. Dancing, Singing and Painting ?

(1) 862

(2) 687

(3) 1212

(4) 1087

(5) None of these

Q.98. Number of boys enrolled in Painting only is what percent of the girls enrolled in the same ? (rounded off to the digits after decimal)

(1) 81.46

2) 85.67

(3) 72.83

(4) 76.19

(5) None of these

Q.99. How many students are enrolled in Singing ?

(1) 680

(2) 420

(3) 1027

(4) 1129

(5) None of these

100. How many boys are enrolled in Dancing ?

(1) 480

(2) 360

(3) 250

(4) 230

(5) None of these